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A 29-year-old woman presents with a 12-month history of inability to conceive despite frequent, unprotected intercourse. She reports irregular menstrual cycles occurring every 45 to 60 days, severe acne, and excess facial hair growth. Physical examination reveals hirsutism on her chin and upper lip. Her BMI is 31 kg/m². Laboratory evaluation reveals an elevated LH to FSH ratio and normal prolactin and TSH levels. Which of the following is the first-line medication recommended for ovulation induction in this patient? A. Metformin B. Clomiphene citrate C. Letrozole D. Human menopausal gonadotropin (hMG) Question 4
A 54-year-old postmenopausal woman presents to the clinic complaining of light vaginal bleeding and spotting for the past 2 weeks. She went through menopause 3 years ago and is not on hormone replacement therapy. Her body mass index (BMI) is 34 kg/m². Her physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?
The patient meets the Rotterdam criteria for Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) : oligomenorrhea, clinical hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, acne), and obesity. For patients with PCOS suffering from infertility, letrozole (an aromatase inhibitor) is now preferred over clomiphene citrate (Option B) as the first-line agent for ovulation induction. Large-scale clinical trials have demonstrated that letrozole results in higher live-birth and ovulation rates in obese women with PCOS. Metformin (Option A) improves insulin sensitivity but is less effective as a standalone agent for ovulation. Gonadotropins (Option D) are used as second- or third-line options due to the high risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) and multiple pregnancies. Question 4 Correct Answer: A. Ulipristal acetate Obstetrics And Gynecology 1500 Multiple Choice Questions
A. Reassure the patient and request a repeat visit if bleeding persists
Uterine leiomyomas (fibroids) are benign tumors of myometrial origin found in a vast majority of premenopausal women. Asymptomatic leiomyomas—regardless of size or location—do not require medical or surgical intervention . The risk of malignant transformation (leiomyosarcoma) is extremely low (
Option A is incorrect because a cesarean delivery is reserved for standard obstetric indications; induction of labor is preferred if the patient is stable. Physical examination reveals hirsutism on her chin and
Modern OB-GYN MCQs have evolved beyond simple rote memorization. They frequently utilize clinical vignettes —detailed patient stories that require students to: ABOG Qualifying Question Bank | OBGYN Board Prep
For the average medical student or OB/Gyn resident preparing for the CREOG (Council on Resident Education in Obstetrics and Gynecology) in-service exam or the American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ABOG) written exam, a dedicated set of is not just enough—it is optimal.
: Widely considered the gold standard for medical students, this book is frequently updated based on the latest editions of major clinical texts. Which of the following is the first-line medication
Document the concepts you consistently miss. If you repeatedly fail questions regarding the triage of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) on Pap smears, dedicate a study block specifically to the ASCCP guidelines.
Option A is incorrect because induction of labor is preferred over immediate cesarean unless there are maternal or fetal contraindications to vaginal delivery.
